Bộ 8 đề thi giữa học kì 2 tiếng Anh lớp 11 có đáp án

Bộ 8 đề thi môn tiếng Anh 11 giữa kì 2 có đáp án dưới đây nằm trong bộ đề ôn thi giữa học kì 2 lớp 11 qua các năm do Tip.edu.vn sưu tầm và đăng tải. Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 2 lớp 11 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án gồm 8 đề kiểm tra Tiếng Anh 11 mới khác nhau được biên tập bám sát nội dung chương trình học giúp học sinh lớp 11 ôn tập kiến thức đã học hiệu quả.

Đề thi giữa kì 2 tiếng Anh lớp 11 có đáp án – Đề số 1

I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.

1. A. helps B. provides C. documents D. texts

2. A. chemistry B. church C. cheese D. children

3. A. fax B facsimile C transfer D spacious

4. A. heat B. nuclear C. feat D. clean

5. A. capture B. land C. marathon D. parade

II. Circle the best answer for each sentence.

6. Nuclear energy is unlimited but it is very _________to human beings and the environment.

A. extinct B.released C. endangered D. dangerous

7. The music _________ you are listening sounds really interesting.

A. which B.to that C. to which D. to whom

8. He was the first man _________ me the truth.

A. telling B.told C. to tell D. to be told

9. Dinosaurs became _________ millions of years ago.

A. develop B.extinct C. increase D. decrease

Water is free to everyone. A few years ago people thought that the supply of clean water in the world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been ruined by pollution and sewage. Clean water is now scarce, and we are at last beginning to respect this precious source. We should do something now.

1. One environmental problem in the world today is ————–.

A. acid rain B. safe water shortage C. industrial pollution D. population explosion

2. What is a serious problem of Lake Baikal in Russia?

A. It contains a rich variety of animals and plants.

B. It has 1,300 rare species that do not exist anywhere else in the world.

C. It is polluted by massive volumes of industrial wastes discharged into it.

D. The government did not have the power to enforce laws and regulations.

3. How many countries throw industrial wastes into the Mediterranean Sea regularly?

A. exactly 16 B. exactly 15 C. less than 15 D. nearly 16

4. What is the message to the readers?

A. We should take action to protect our water resources.

B. We should take all water resources into account

C. We should limit the use of water resources.

D. We should encourage people to use safe water

VIII. Write a short paragraph about the reasons why nature in danger and its solutions. (at least 60 words) (1p)

Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 11 giữa học kì 2 có đáp án – Đề số 4

A. LISTENING: (2 points)

People are talking about sports and activities.

What sport or activity is the person talking about? Listen and choose the correct answer.

1. A. going to the gym B. swimming C. jogging

2. A. playing golf B. playing soccer C. playing volleyball

3. A. playing baseball B. playing tennis C. playing soccer

4. A. playing tennis B. watching TV C. reading

Listen and write one suitable word for each blank.

5. A. in the…………… the woman enjoys windsurfing.

B. But she doesn’t do……………. in the winter.

6. A. The woman doesn’t have a lot of…………… time.

B. but about once a week she…………….. for an hour.

B. LANGUAGE FOCUS: (3.5 points)

Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.

7. A. stamps B. friends C. relatives D. guitars

8. A. stamped B. grabbed C. trapped D. stopped

Choose the word that has stress pattern different from that of the other words.

9. A. volunteer B. competition C. enthusiastic D. intercultural

Choose the best answer to complete each sentence.

10. _____ my parents gave me the fish tank.

A. It was on my birthday when B. It was my birthday on that

C. It was my birthday that D. It was on my birthday that

11. Mr. Trung, with…………. I am working, is an ambitious man.

A. who B. whom C. that D. whoever

12. The man……………….the bank is a millionaire.

A. is entering B. entering C. to be entered D. enters

13. Scuba-diving and windsurfing are both aquatic sports.

A. field B. water C. combat D. individual

14. ______ is the sport of fighting with long thin swords.

A. Basketball B. Fencing C. Hockey D. Wrestling

15. My other pursuits include listening to music, reading and gardening.

A. chases B. occupations C. specialties D. dedicatee

16. David: “You’ve got a beautiful dress!” Helen: “…………..”

A. I do B. Thanks for your compliment C. You too D. OK

17. Mr Pike: Excuse me, is anybody sitting here? – Tom:…….

A. No, thanks B. Yes, I’m so glad C. Sorry, the seat is taken D. Yes, yes you can sit here

Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.

18. (A) In an essay (B) writing in 1779, Judith Sargeant Murray promoted (C) the cause of (D) women’s education.

19. He is the (A) second person (B) be helped (C) in (D) that way.

20. (A) The song to (B) that we (C) listened last night (D) was beautiful.

C. READING: (2.5 points)

Fill each gap with a word from the box. (1.25 points)

watching keeping from bought in

Another hobby of mine is……(21)……….. fish. I have a modest little glass fish tank where I keep a variety of little fish. Some of them were………(22)……. from the shop while some others were collected……(23)…….. the rice field near my house. They look so beautiful swimming about………..(24)……. the tank. I love watching them and my mother loves………(25)…… them, too.

Read the passage, then choose the correct answers: (1.25 points)

The SEA Games originated from the SEAP (Southeast Asian Peninsula) Games which were first held in Thailand in 1959. When the first SEAP Games were held in Bangkok in 1959, only six countries participated, namely Laos, Burma (Myanmar), Malaysia, Singapore, Thailand, and Viet Nam.

Luang Sukhumnaipradit, the then Vice President of the Thai National Olympic Committee, had been trying to begin a SEAP Games since 1957. He believed that a regional sports competition, similar to the Asian Games or the Olympic Games, will help promote cooperation, understanding, and relations among countries in the region. His efforts were rewarded after two years.

The name SEAP Games was used up to 1975. Thailand had by then been the host country three times. Later on Indonesia, the Philippines, and Brunei joined the Games, which were then renamed SEA Games at its 9th athletics meet in Malaysia in 1977. The name has since been officially adopted and the Games have become the most important sporting event of the region. The membership of the SEA Games has now increased to ten with Cambodia being the last member.

26. _________ 1977, SEAP Games was the official name of the sporting event in Southeast Asia.

A. During B. Before C. After D. In

27. The preparation for a Southeast Asian sporting event __________ two years.

A. cost B. spent C. lasted D. carried out

28. Luang Sukhumnaipradit was sure that a sport competition will be good for _______ in Southeast Asia.

A. sports B. economies C. relations D. peace

29. Viet Nam was the host country of SEA Games in __________.

A. 2001 B. 2003 C. 2005 D. 2007

30. Up to 1975, __________ had hosted three SEA Games.

A. Malaysia B. Indonesia C. the Philippines D. Thailand

D. WRITING: (2points)

Rewrite the following sentences as directed. (1point)

31. I read a book that was written by my friend.

___________________________________________ (Use Reduced relative clause)

32. The woman left him. He loved her.

___________________________________________ (Use omission of relative pronoun.)

33. My secretary sent the bill to Mr Henry yesterday.

___________________________________________ (using the cleft sentence)

34. We met him ten minutes ago.

___________________________________________ (using the cleft sentence)

Make complete sentences with the given words. (1point)

35. It/ be/ Tom/ draw/ that painting/.

___________________________________________

36.There/ be/ a lot of/ people/ in your office/ want/ to/ talk/ to/ you/.

___________________________________________

37.It/ be/ only/ when/ I/ read/ her/ letter/ I/ realized/ what/ was/ happening/.

___________________________________________

38. Vietnam/ export/ a lot of/ rice/ grow/ mainly/ in/ the south/ of/ the/ country/.

___________________________________________

ĐÁP ÁN

1.A 2.C 3.B 4.B

5.A. summer 5. B.anything 6.A. free 6.B.walks

7.A 10. D 13.B 16. B 19. B

8. B 11. B 14. B 17. C 20. B

9. C 12. B 15. A 18. B

21.keeping 22. bought 23. From 24. in 25.watching

26. B 29. B

27. C 30. D

28. C

31. I read a book written by my friend.

32. The woman he loved left him.

33. It was my secretary who sent the bill to Mr Henry yesterday.

34.It was ten minutes ago that we met him.

35. It was Tom who draw that painting.

36.There are a lot of people in your office wanting to talk to you .

37. It was only when I read her letter that I realized what was happening.

38. Vietnam exports a lot of rice grown mainly in the south of the country .

Đề thi tiếng Anh giữa học kì 2 lớp 11 có đáp án – Đề số 5

I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the underlined part that is pronounced differently from others.

Câu 1: A. energy B. supply C. dirty D. happy

Câu 2: A. introduced B. participated C. provided D. appriciated

Câu 3: A. reason B. idea C. easy D. speak

Câu 4: A. fuels B. hundreds C. laws D. governments

Câu 5: A. billiards B. biking C. skill D. weightlifting

II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Câu 6: Hung: “Thank you very much for a lovely party.”

Hoa: “_______. ”

A. Thanks

B. You are welcome

C. Have a good day

D. Cheers

Câu 7: Do you see the beautiful young girl _____over there?

A. stood

B. to stand

C. standing

D. whom is standing

Câu 8: A _____ is a structure that is used to convert the power of the wind into electricity.

A. panel

B. machine

C. dam

D. windmill

Câu 9: The energy _____ by the windmill drives all the drainage pumps.

A. producing

B. produced

C. that is producing

D. which produces

Câu 10: The human race is only one small species in the living world. Many ____ species exist on this planet.

A. the others

B. others

C. the other

D. other

Câu 11: P1: “I am having an examination tomorrow.” – P2: “_____”

A. Good luck!

B. Congratulations!

C. Why?

D. Be careful

Câu 12: ____ national parks all over the world have been established to protect endangered animals.

A. Thousand

B. Thousands

C. Thousands of

D. Thousand of

Câu 13: We are proud of our ______ staff, who are always friendly and efficient.

A. well-appointed

B. well-done

C. well-behaved

D. well-trained

Câu 14: Do you still remember the day ________ you sent me that letter?

A. on when

B. why

C. on which

D. where

Câu 15: There are five students in my class ______ speak Chinese very well.

A. whom

B. whose

C. who

D. which

Câu 16: Peter has left these socks on the bathroom floor, _______________?

A. hasn’t Peter

B. didn’t he

C. didn’t Peter

D. hasn’t he

Câu 17: Many efforts have been made to _________the environment.

A. protect

B. contaminate

C. pollute

D. dirty

Câu 18: _________is a great source of energy but very dangerous.

A. Solar energy

B. Water power

C. Nuclear power

D. Wind energy

Câu 19: A _____ is someone who pays rent to live in a house or a flat.

A. tenant

B. waitress

C. customer

D. coward

Câu 20: The people can’t _______a phone call after 10 p.m.

A. do

B. offer

C. give

D. make

Câu 21: They are asking for public donation to protect some certain wild animals _______ dying out.

A. in

B. from

C. on

D. up

Câu 22: The post office is the public service or system by which letters and _______ are collected and delivered.

A. faxes

B. parcels

C. documents

D. graphics

Câu 23: Tim studied really hard when he was at school. _______, he later became a successful person.

A. Result

B. As result

C. Consequently

D. As the result

Câu 24: Before leaving home in the morning, she _______ her mother she _______ in the factory that afternoon.

A. told/ would work

B. had told/ would work

C. told/ works

D. had told/ worked

Câu 25: Linda: So how are things at school, Tom? – Tom: _______

A. Well, I can’t agree with you

B. I was not good at it

C. It’s my pleasure

D. Oh, pretty good, actually

III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to find out one mistake in each sentence.

Câu 26: I gave my address to a man I met him on the train last Sunday.

A. him B. to C. gave D. the train

Câu 27: A lot of homes in the area has been broken into by burglars.

A. in the area B. by C. has been D. broken into

Câu 28: The sunflower, the official state flower of Kansas, and is widespread in the prairies of the western United States.

A. the western B. widespread C. state flower D. and is

Câu 29: Only a few of the films show at the Gray Theatre are suitable for children.

A. show B. a few C. for children D. are

Câu 30: If we had more time last week, we would certainly have finished the project on time.

A. on time B. had C. certainly D. the

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the followings.

Câu 31: Deforestation is destroying large areas of tropical rain forest.

A. becoming

B. damaging

C. raising

D. changing

Câu 32: Our well-trained staff are always courteous to customers.

A. honest

B. patient

C. crude

D. polite

Câu 33: Many national parks have been established to protect endangered animals.

A. decorated

B. renewed

C. lost

D. set up

V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the followings.

Câu 34: Solar energy is not only plentiful but also infinite.

A. unlimited

B. strong

C. rapid

D. limited

Câu 35: The boat provides spacious accommodation for five people.

A. noisy

B. large

C. quite

D. small

VI. Read the passage then complete the sentences by marking the corresponding letter: A, B, C, or D. Mark your choice on the answer sheet.

The natural environment includes all natural resources that are necessary for life: the air, the oceans, the sun and the land. Because they are vital for life, these resources must be protected from pollution and conserved. Ecologists study their importance and how to use them carefully.

According to ecologists, resources are divided into two groups: renewable and non-renewable. When

a resource is used, it takes some time to replace it. If the resource can be replaced quickly, it is called renewable. If it can not be replaced quickly and easily, it is nonrenewable. For example grass for animals is a renewable resource. When cows eat the grass , the resource is used. If the soil is fertilized and protected, more grass will grow. Coal, however, is nonrenewable because it takes millions of years to make coal. All fossil fuels are nonrenewable resources.

Solar energy, air and water are renewable resources because there is unlimited supply. However, this definition may change, if people are not careful with these resources. The amount of solar energy that reaches the earth depends on the atmosphere . If the atmosphere is polluted, the solar energy that reaches the earth may be dangerous. If life is going to continue, the air must contain the correct amount of nitrogen (N), oxygen (O), Carbon dioxide (CO2), and other gases. If humans continue to pollute the air, it will not contain the correct amounts of these gases.

Câu 36: Ecology is the study of _______________.

A. human beings and animals

B. the environment and solar energy

C. human beings and their environment.

D. natural and alternative resources

Câu 37: The natural environment consists of .

A. the air and the oceans

B. all natural resources

C. the oceans and the land

D. the sun and the air

Câu 38: If the resource can be , it is called renewable.

A. burnt quickly

B. used easily

C. divided properly

D. replaced quickly

Câu 39: Grass for animals is a resource.

A. clean

B. nonrenewable

C. renewable

D. limited

Câu 40: According to the passage, coal is nonrenewable because it takes to make it.

A. three billion years

B. billions of years

C. millions of years

D. three million years

VII. Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

Many people cut trees all over the world. These are people (41) _________do not know they are harming themselves by their action. Recently, there was news about the destruction of lives and property in Uttarakhand due to flash floods (42) _________by a cloud burst. According to ecologists and(43) _________, one of the main causes of this catastrophe was deforestation. Actually, people cut trees for the sake of luxury and money. Deforestation results (44) _________global warming, drought and famine. People should be made aware of the ill effects of deforestation. Organizations like WWF (World Wildlife Fund) should be encouraged in their efforts and guided in all possible ways to help promote preservation of forest land. If deforestation continues at the current rate, a day will come when the human (45) _________itself will be endangered.

Câu 41: A. what B. whom C. which D. who

Câu 42: A. which caused B. were caused C. caused D. which were caused

Câu 43: A. environmental B. environmentalists C. environmentalist D. environment

Câu 44: A. in B. to C. from D. of

Câu 45: A. species B. condition C. nature D. resource

VIII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best sentence that can be made from the given cues.

Câu 46: John Smith is a farmer. I bought his land.

A. John Smith, whose land I bought, is a farmer.

B. John Smith, whom I bought his land, is a farmer.

C. John Smith, who is a farmer, whose land I bought.

D. John Smith, a farmer, bought his land.

Câu 47: I must thank the man. I got the present from him.

A. I must thank the man from whom I got the present from him.

B. I must thank the man whom from I got the present.

C. I must thank the man from which I got the present.

D. I must thank the man from whom I got the present .

Câu 48: I live in a flat in London. I paid a high rent for it.

A. I live in a flat in London for which I paid a high rent .

B. I live in a flat in London which I paid a high rent.

C. I live in a flat in London where I paid a high rent for.

D. I live in a flat in London for that I paid a high rent .

Câu 49: We were looking at some jewelry, but it was expensive.

A. The jewelry which we were looking at was expensive.

B. The jewelry at which we were looking at was expensive.

C. The jewelry looking at was expensive.

D. The jewelry at that we were looking at was expensive.

Câu 50: It was a kind of accident. Nobody was really to blame for it.

A. It was a kind of accident for which nobody was really to blame.

B. It was a kind of accident for which nobody was really to blame for .

C. It was a kind of accident for whom was really to blame it.

D. It was a kind of accident for which nobody was really to blame it.

Đề kiểm tra giữa học kì 2 lớp 11 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án – Đề số 6

A. TRẮC NGHIỆM (5 POINTS)

I. Pick out the word whose underlined and bold part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.

1. A. conservation B. nation C. mention D. question

2. A. represent B. receive C. respect D. repeat

3. A. presented B. decided C. transported D. informed

4. A. shrill B. shrine C. shrimp D. shrink

II. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D.

5. I don’t know the girl……..wearing a long blue dress.

A. whom

B. whose

C. X(nothing)

D. who

6 . Grass for animals is a …………………….. resource.

A. renewable

B. non – renewable

C. limited

D. clean

7. Hung: “Would you like to have dinner with me?” Lam: “_________.”

A. Yes, so do I

B. Yes, I’d love to

C. Yes, it is

D. I’m very happy

8. Killing …………… animals for fur, skin and food should be banned.

A. dangerous

B. endangering

C. endanger

D. endangered

9. What is the difference between human ……………….. and animals ?

A. is

B. are

C. beings

D. be

10. The old man ………….a black suit is a famous energy researcher.

A. to wear

B. wearing

C. whom is wearing

D. is wearing

11. I’m not a doctor. If I _______a doctor, I ____________help the sick.

A. am/ will

B. was/ will

C. were/ would

D. were/ will

12. Mexico City, … has a population of over 10 million, is probably the fastest growing city in the world.

A. which

B. whose

C. that

D. A & B are correct

13. He’s the singer ………………. last performance was such a failure.

A. which

B. that

C. whom

D. whose

14. Solar energy is not only plentiful and infinite but also clean and safe.

A. natural

B. popular

C. scarce

D. abundant

15. She is the woman …………….. I told you.

A. on whom

B. in which

C. about who

D. about whom

16. Our well-trained staff are always courteous to customers.

A. patient

B. crude

C. polite

D. honest

III. Choose the underlined word or phrase- A, B, C, or D- that needs correcting.

17. The (A) waiter whom (B) served us yesterday was (C) polite and friendly (D) .

18. The room is located (A) on (B) the (C) second floor is being (D) decorated.

19. Thousands of (A) animals are (B) being eliminate (C) each year (D).

20. She passed (A) the board exam, who (B) made her (C) parents proud (D).

IV. Read the following passage and then choose the best answer.

One of the most urgent environment problems in the world today is the shortage of clean water. Having clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain, industrial pollution and garbage have made many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes and even entire seas have become large pools of poison. Lake Baikal in Russia is one of largest lake in the world. It contains a rich variety of animals and plants, including 1,300 rare species that do not exist anywhere else in the world. But they are being destroyed by the massive volumes of industrial pollutants which pour into the lake everyday. Even where law existed, the government did not have the power to enforce them. Most industries simply ignore the regulations. The Mediterranean Sea occupies 1% of the world’s water surface. But it is the dumping ground for 50% of all marine pollution. Almost sixteen countries regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles off shore. Water is free to everyone. A few years ago people thought that the supply of clean water in the world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been ruined by pollution and sewage. Clean water is now scarce, and we are at last beginning to respect this precious source. We should do something now.

21. One environment problem in the world today is……..

A. industrial pollution

B. population explosion

C. acid rain

D. the fresh water shortage

22.What is the message to the readers?

A. We should do something protect our water resources.

B. We should encourage people to use safe water.

C. We should limit the clean water in the world.

D. We should use a lot of clean water.

23. Many sources of water are not drinkable because of……….

A. industrial pollution

B. acid rain

C. acid rain, industrial pollution and garbage

D. garbage

24. What is a serious problem of Lake Baikal in Russia?

A. The government did not have the power to enforce laws and regulations.

B. It contains a rich variety of animals and plants.

C. It is polluted by massive volumes of industrial wastes discharged into it.

D. It has 1,300 rare species that do not exist anywhere else in the world.

25. How many countries throw industrial wastes into the Mediterranean Sea regularly?

A. nearly 16

B. exactly 16

C. less than 15

D. exactly 15

B. TỰ LUẬN (5 POINTS)

I. Put the verbs in brackets into the correct form. (1point)

1. When I (come) ……………………., she (leave) …………………………for Dalat ten minutes ago.

2. He moved to HCMC last year and I (not have) ……………………….. him since then.

3. Our house (destroy) ………………………in the storm last night.

4. Linda was the last student ( ask)………………………. at the oral exam.

II. Rewrite the sentences as directed (2 points)

1. Students who cheat in the final test will get zero mark. (Reducing Relative clause)

………………………………………………………………………………

2. The last person who was interviewed yesterday was Jack. (Reducing Relative clause)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

3. The officers work 8 hours a day. Their salary is too low to support the family. (Using Relative pronoun )

………………………………………………………………………………….

4. The examination lasted 2 days. I was successful in this exam. (use pre+ relative pronoun.)

………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Sydney is the largest Australian city. It is not the capital of Australia. (using relative pronoun)

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

III. In about 80 – 100 words, write a description about one of the national parks you know (2 points)

ĐÁP ÁN

A. Trắc nghiệm (5 points)

B. Tự luận (5 points)

I. Put the verbs in brackets into the correct form. (5 x 0,2= 1,0)

1. came – left

2. have not had

3. was destroyed

4. to be asked

II. Rewrite the sentences as directed. (5 x 0,4 = 2,0)

1. Students cheating in the final test will get zero mark.

2. The last person to be interviewed yesterday was Jack.

3. The officers whose salary is too low to support the famiwork 8 hours a day.

4. The examination in which I was successful lasted 2 days.

5. Sydney, which is not the capital of Australia, is the largest Australian city.

III. In about 80- 100 words, write a description about one of the national parks you know (2 points)

1. Format. (0,4 point) – the description has 3 parts: the introduction , the body and the conclusion 2. Content. (1,0 point): a provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the topic.

3. Language. (0,4 point): a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of secondary students

4. Presentation. (0,2 point): coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of secondary students.

Đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh lớp 11 giữa học kì 2 có đáp án – Đề số 7

I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. (1 point)

1. A. Across B. Arrest C. Advantage D. Advertise

2. A. Swallow B. Sword C. Swing D. Swim

3. A. Co-exist B. Ordinary C. Host D. Note

4. A. Icing B. Hike C. Extinct D. Sight

II. Complete the sentences with the suitable words in the box. Make any changes in the form if necessary (1.5 points)

fertilize plenty environment resource geothermal renew

1. The organization’s success is largely due to the way it manages its human…………….

2. Solar energy, air and water are………………….resources.

3. Flowers are often………………..by bees as they gather nectar.

4. I think we should use ……………heat as an alternative source of energy.

5. …………are calling for the new pesticide regulations to be strictly enforced.

6. Solar energy is not only……………..and infinite but also clean and safe.

III. Complete the sentences. Choose the most appropriate ending from the list and make it into a relative clause. (1.5 points)

he invented the telephone it had no effect at all they were on the wall

it won the race it can support life we borrowed his tent

she runs away from home they stole my car

1. What was the name of the friend …………………………………………………………?

2. Alexander Graham Bell was the man …………………………………………………….

3. The police have caught the men ………………………………………………………….

4. The doctor gave me the medicine ……………………………………………………… ..

5. The book is about a girl ……………………………………………………………………

6. What was the name of the horse ………………………………………………………….?

IV. Give the correct forms of the verbs in bracket (1 point)

1. When I (arrive)………………..at the airport yesterday, I (meet)…………………..by my cousin and a couple of friends

2. I don’t have my bicycle today. It’s with the repairman. It (repair)…………………… now.

3. The floor is clean. It seems that he just (clean)…………………………it.

V. A. Rewrite the following sentences, using present participial (V_ing) or past participial phrases (V_ed) or “to infinitives” (1.5 points)

1. Here are some accounts that you must check.

2. None of the pedestrians who were walking up and down the busy street stopped to help the elderly man who was slumped in the door way.

3. A knuckle is a point that connects a finger to the rest of the hand.

B. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word or words in capitals, and so that the meaning stays the same (1 point).

1. The dog that chases our cat belongs to those people (WHOSE).

2. I can’t remember the last heavy rain (WHEN)

VI. Read the passage and choose the best answers for questions 1,2, and 3 and write the answers for questions 4 and 5. (2.5 points )

ELECTRIC CARS

Electric cars are not a new idea. People have been working on developing electric cars since the 1960s! So, what has been taking them so long to hit the road? Most electric cars were designed to use big batteries. These large, heavy devices had to be recharged between uses. The cars could not go very far before they needed to be recharged. Then, recharging the batteries took a long time. Needless to say, not many people were willing to give up their reliable gas-powered cars for such an alternative.

Then, in 2000, two car companies began selling “hybrid” electric cars. These electric cars used gasoline in addition to electricity, but they never had to be recharged! The electric car finally had both a workable and marketable design.

1. What does “them” in paragraph 1 refer to?

A. big batteries

B. people working on electric cars

C. new ideas

D. electric cars

2. It can be inferred from the passage that hybrid electric cars…..

A. are only made by two US car companies

B. do not store electricity in batteries

C. have been used since the 1960s

D. solved a major problem that other electric cars had

3. The word “alternative” in the passage is closest in meaning to….

A. different option

B. other electricity

C. different battery

D. other people

4. When have people been working on developing electric cars?

5. Why couldn’t the electric cars go very far?

ĐÁP ÁN

I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. (1point)

1. D

2. B

3. B

4. C

II. Complete the sentences with the suitable words in the box. Make any changes in the form if necessary (1.5 points)

1. Resources

2. Renewable

3. Fertilized

4. Geothermal

5. Environmentalists

6. Plentiful

III. Complete the sentences. Choose the most appropriate ending from the list and make it into a relative clause. (1.5 points)

1. What was the name of the friend whose tent we borrowed?

2. Alexander Graham Bell was the man who invented the telephone.

3. The police have caught the men who stole my car.

4. The doctor gave me the medicine which had no effect at all.

5. The book is about a girl who runs away from home.

6. What was the name of the horse which won the race?

IV. Give the correct forms of the verbs in bracket (1 point)

1. arrived – was met

2. is being repaired

3. has just cleaned

V. A. Rewrite the following sentences, using present participial (V_ing) or past participial phrases (V_ed) or “to infinitives” (1.5 points)

1. Here are some accounts for you to check

2. None of the pedestrians walking up and down the busy street stopped to help the elderly man slumped in the door way.

3. A knuckle is a point connecting a finger to the rest of the hand.

B. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word or words in capitals, and so that the meaning stays the same (1 point).

1. Those are the people whose dog chases our cat

2. I can’t remember when it last rained heavily.

VI. Read the passage and choose the best answers for questions 1,2, and 3 and write the answers for questions 4 and 5. (2.5 points)

1. D

2. D

3. A

4. People have been working on developing electric cars since the 1960s.

5. The cars could not go very far before they needed to be recharged.

Đề thi tiếng Anh giữa kì 2 lớp 11 có đáp án – Đề số 8

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1. A. abroad	B. absorb	C. academic	D. achieve
2. A. drought	B. cousin	C. tough	D. trouble
3. A. partially	B. party	C. particular	D. participate
4. A. tutor	B. master	C. tuition	D. transcript
5. A. consult	B. campus	C. discussion	D. subject

Choose the option that best completes each of the following sentences

1. Ann ____ for a university in England for a week, and she hasn’t found one.

A. had looked

B. has been looking

C. is looking

D. looked

2. Rising water temperatures is a result of global warming and may eventually increase sea level due to the dissolving of ______.

A. glaciers

B. mountains

C. wetlands

D. river beds

3. New students must ____ for classes before term begins.

A. teach

B. join

C. enrol

D. enter

4. When you listen to a lecture, it is useful to ____ the important points.

A. put down

B. clear

C. notify

D. write on

5. The Examination Board have recently changed the ____ for the Diploma in History.

A. compendium

B. programme

C. syllabus

D. brochure

6. What does global warming have ____ overpopulation?

A. to do

B. to do with

C. made

D. made up

7. Depending on your nationality, you may be ____ for a loan or financial support from the UK government.

A. legal

B. capable

C. able

D. eligible

8. The International Baccalaureate is also now offered by more schools in the UK as a(n) ____ to A-levels.

A. choice

B. substitution

C. alternative

D. option

9. My two children were full of beans today, looking forward to the fair.

A. disappointed

B. hyperactive

C. melancholy

D. in high spirits

10. We should make full ____ of renewable sources of energy such as wind and solar power in the world.

A. effort

B. use

C. need

D. limit

Use the correct form and tense of the verb in brackets to complete each of the following sentences.

1. Holly did very well in her exam, which was a shock because she (NEVER/TAKE) an exam before.

2. The population of Australia (REACH) 30 million by 2040.

3. The best way (SEE) London is by taking a guided tour.

4. It’s the first time you (TAKE) an online course, isn’t it?

5. If Alphonse Edwards (NOT/ DISSECT) a giant panda, scientists would not have thought the giant panda was a raccoon.

Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.

1. I didn’t see her again for five years.

Five years __________________________________________________.

2. The film star wore dark glasses so that no one would recognize him.

The film star avoided _________________________________________.

3. The zoo keepers feed the lions at 3 pm every day.

The lions ___________________________________________________.

4. The decorators have finished our first floor.

We have ___________________________________________________.

5. I don’t have any hats as cheap as this one.

This hat is __________________________________________________.

Read the passage below, and decide whether the statements are True (T), False (F) or Not given (NG)

If you are sightseeing in Belfast and are tired of the city, you might want to consider a fabulous day trip to one of Ireland’s most amazing natural wonders, the Giant’s Causeway. It is only one and a half hours by car and the views along the north coast are unforgettable. It is an attraction no tourist visiting Northern Ireland should miss.

The causeway is a mass of basalt columns standing very close to one another. The tops of the columns form stepping stones that lead from the cliff foot and disappear under the sea. There are 40,000 of them and most have six sides.

The tallest are about 12 metres high. They were formed 60 million years ago by lava from a volcano which cooled and shrank as it came into contact with the atmosphere. The columns are blue and black, with some red. Each one is separate, and each could be removed without causing any damage to the causeway.

One old legend says that the Giant’s Causeway was built by the great Irish giant, Finn McCool. He wanted to use it to get to Scotland to fight with a rival giant. When he got there, he saw that the Scottish giant was asleep and much bigger than he was, so Finn quickly turned around and ran back home. When the Scottish giant woke up, he came across the cause way to find Finn. But Finn’s wife had dressed her husband up as a baby and said ‘Finn is not home and be quiet or you’ll wake up the baby.’

When the Scottish giant saw the ‘baby’, he thought to himself that if the baby was that big, Finn must be huge. He was terrified and quickly ran home across the causeway destroying everything but the ends, here at the Giant’s Causeway and in Scotland, where similar formations are found. Now the causeway gets around 500,000 visitors annually from all around the world since it can be reached easily by train, bus or car. And best of all, the Giant’s Causeway is open all year round.

1. There are 40,000 columns and some of them have six sides .

2. The Giant’s Causeway is the only tourist attraction in Belfast.

3. Finn McCool thought he was too small to fight the Scottish giant.

4. In the end, Finn used a trick and destroyed the Scottish giant.

5. The middle part of the causeway is lost.

Mời bạn đọc tải trọn bộ nội dung đề thi và đáp án tại đây: Bộ đề thi giữa học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 11 có đáp án. Ngoài ra, Tip.edu.vn đã đăng tải rất nhiều tài liệu ôn thi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 11 giữa học kì 2 năm 2018 – 2019 mới nhất như:

Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 2 lớp 11 môn Tiếng Anh năm học 2018 – 2019

Đề kiểm tra giữa học kì 2 lớp 11 môn Tiếng Anh năm học 2018 – 2019 số 2

20 đề thi học kì 2 lớp 11 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án

Bên cạnh đó, Tip.edu.vn cập nhật rất nhiều tài liệu ôn tập Tiếng Anh lớp 11 cả năm khác như: Để học tốt Tiếng Anh lớp 11, Bài tập Tiếng Anh lớp 11 theo từng Unit trực tuyến, Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 11, Đề thi học kì 2 lớp 11,.. Mời thầy cô, quý phụ huynh và các em học sinh tham khảo, download phục vụ việc học tập và giảng dạy.