50 đề luyện thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 có đáp án dưới đây nằm trong bộ đề Bồi dưỡng HSG lớp 9 môn Anh văn mới nhất trên Tip.edu.vn. Tài liệu này tổng hợp 50 đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 9 môn Tiếng Anh có đap án đi kèm, hi vọng sẽ giúp các bạn ôn tập và củng cố kiến thức Tiếng Anh THCS, ôn thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 hiệu quả.
Đề thi học sinh giỏi Anh 9 có đáp án – Đề số 1
I. VOCABULARY: (30 points)
Part 1: Circle the letter (A, B, C or D) next to the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.
1. It’s a good idea to see your doctor regularly for ………………. .
A. a revision
B. a control
C. an investigation
D. a check-up
2. Last year the potato harvest was very disappointing, but this year it looks as though we shall have a better ………………. .
A. product
B. outcome
C. amount
D. crop
3.When the starter gave the ………………. all the competitors in the race began to run round the track.
A. signal
B. warning
C. shot
D. show
4……………….. from Bill, all the students said they would go
A. Except
B. Only
C. Apart
D. Separate
5. The new manager explained to the staff that she hoped to ………………. new procedures to save time and money.
A. manufacture
B. establish
C. control
D. restore
6. There is a fault at our television station. Please do not ……………….. your television set.
A. change
B. adjust
C. repair
D. switch
7. The crowd at a football match are often …………….. .
A. excite
B. excited
C. exciting
D. excitement
8. I’m very ……………….. in the information you have given me.
A. concerned
B. surprised
C. bored
D. interested
9. I saw a thief take Peter’s wallet so I ran ………………. him, but I didn’t catch him.
A. into
B. after
C. over
D. near
10. If it’s raining tomorrow, we shall have to………………. the match till Sunday.
A. put off
B. cancel
C. play
D. put away
Part 2: Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line.
Kids watch more TV
A study into children’s television (0) viewing habits reveals VIEW
that children whose parents have a high level of (1) _________________ EDUCATE
tend to watch less television than children from less educated
family(2) ________________ . The report also suggests that a high rate of BACK
TV watching among children in poorer (3) _________________ areas SUBURB
and in the provinces, compared to those living in large urban centre,
is often due to (4) _________________ and a lack of other kinds of POOR
(5) _________________ in the area. Disco, cinema, theatre and sports ENTERTAIN
(6) ________________ offer children in urban centre a wider range ACTIVE
of pastimes, which leads to far (7) ______________ hours being spent FEW
in front of the box. (8) ______________, comedies and adventure films COMMERCE
are children’s (9) _______________ programmes, while twenty per cent FAVOUR
of children said they preferred (10) _______________ films and thrillers. VIOLENCE
Part 3: Match each phrasal verb with the correct definition
|
1. fill in 2. turn into 3. go away 4. put away 5. run out of 6. get away with 7. join in 8. pick out 9. keep on 10. get over |
A. participate B. avoid punishment C. select, choose D. change into, become E. continue F. complete ( a form) G. leave H. recover from I. use up completely J. return something to its correct place |
II. GRAMMAR (20 points)
Part 1: Use the correct forms of the verbs in the brackets to complete the passage below.
I (write) (1) ………………………………… to express my dissatisfaction of my stay at the Lord Hotel in London last weekend. I (book) (2) ……………………………….. the hotel in Sweden and also (receive) (3) ……………………….. information about the hotel. I (promise) (4) ………………………….. a luxury weekend. However, I (be) (5)………………………………. not satisfied. The room was comfortable, but the traffic from the road opposite the hotel (make) (6) ……………………………… it impossible to (sleep) (7) ………………………. I (ask) (8) ……………………………….. for another room, but no single rooms (be) (9) …………………………… available. I required room-service one night and I (have) (10) ……………………………. to wait for almost one hour before someone came.
Part 2: Complete the sentences with the correct prepositions
1. She was very conscious (1)……………… her lack of experience on her first day at work.
2. He has a new solution (2)……………… the problem.
3. Nobody helped him. He managed it (3)……………… his own.
4. The drivers (4) ………………. London kept their cars (5) …………… the left.
5. The summer holiday is coming. We are all excited (6) …………….. going (7) …………. a long trip
(8) ………… the South.
6. The children were amazed (9) ……………….. the lion show at the circus.
7. Her small garden looks very beautiful in spring because all the flowers are (10) ……………….. full bloom.
III. READING: (25 points)
Part 1: Put ONE suitable word in each space
Miss Darby was one of those people who never threw anything away. “You never know when you might need it” was (1) ……………………………….. of her favorite sayings. She lived (2) ……………………………….. herself in a large Victorian house across the road from us. Although I never went to her house, I knew it was full (3) ……………………………….. antique furniture, Persian carpets and so on. In every room, there were dozens of paintings so that her house was (4) ……………………………….. an art gallery. I remember my father (5) ……………………………….. that she was a “ Staffordshire Darby” but I had (6) ……………………………….. idea what he meant. I (7) ……………………………….. out years later that the Darby family had made their money from coal-mining in Staffordshire. We used to make up stories (8) ……………………………….. her. My sister Alice, (9) ……………………………….. was a romantic girl, told us that Miss Darby once had a lover, but he walked out one day and she (10) ……………………………….. saw him again!
Part 2 : Read the following passage and answer the questions.
The world’s oceans are so vast that they can cope with the present levels of pollution. However, little is known about the long-term effects of such slow poisoning. The most serious problem of modern time is that man is destroying the earth’s natural resources and transforming huge areas into waste land. As a result, it is becoming extremely difficult to grow enough to feed the world’s rapidly increasing population. A way of protecting all wild life on the earth must also be found as many species are in danger of disappearing completely from the face of the earth. The smoke in the atmosphere, for example, is increasing so much that the amount of sunlight has been reduced in many cities. Man’s whole environment is being changed in a serious way.
1) What is the process of making something dirty ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
2) Find a word or phrase from the passage with the same meaning as the air, water and land in which we live?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
3) What is the air surrounding the earth called?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
4) What could be best replaced wealth, goods or products people can use ?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5) What is a difficulty which needs attention and thought ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Part 3: Read the passage and decide which is the best answer. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the word you choose.
Paper is named for papyrus, a reed like plant used by ancient Egyptians as writing material more than 5000 years ago. The Chinese invented the paper that we use 2000 years ago.
A piece of paper is really made up of tiny fibers, unlike a piece of material. The fibers used in paper, however, are plant fibers, and there are millions of them in one sheet. In addition to the plant fiber, dyes and additives such as resin may be used. Dyes can make the paper different colors; resin may add weight and texture.
Where do these fibers come from ? The majority of paper is made from the plant fiber that comes from trees. Millions are cut down, but new trees are planted in their place. Paper may be also made from things like old rags or pieces of cloth. Wastepaper, paper that has been made and used, can be turned into recycled paper. This recycling process saves forest, energy and reduces air and water pollution.
1. According to the passage, the paper that we use was first invented by ___________.
A. the Chinese B. the Egyptians C. ancient cultures D. foresters
2. What is the main ingredient in most paper?
A. resin B. cardboard C. plant fiber D. papyrus
3. According to the passage, the primary source of the plant fiber used in paper is ________
A. rags B. trees C. fabric D. wastepaper
4. According to the passage, recycling paper is ______________
A. bad for the environment C. good for the environment
B. wasteful D. economical
5. According to the passage, recycling paper does all of the following EXCEPT ______________.
A. reduce the need for ink C. save energy
B. save forests D. reduce air pollution
D. WRITING: (25 points)
Part 1: Rewrite each sentence beginning as shown, so that the meaning remains the same.
Example: He wrote the letter in two hours.
It took him two hours to write the letter.
1. The keepers feed the lions at 3 pm every day.
The lions ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. We got lost because we didn’t have a map.
If we ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. I would prefer you to deliver the sofa on Friday.
I would rather………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. The bridge was so low that the bus couldn’t go under it.
It was ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. That was a silly thing to say.
What ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
6. We’ve run out of tea.
There……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
7. I last saw him when I was a student.
I haven’t ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
8. Susan was too excited to sleep.
Susan was ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
9. Robert has not had a job for two years.
Robert has been ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. She will complete the work only she is paid extra.
She will not …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Part 2 Use the words in the brackets to combine the following sentences.
1. All the students love the principal. He is very kind. (because of)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. I have forgotten the tickets. I’m sorry for it. (having)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. I saw it with my own eyes. I believed it. (if)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
4. The house at the end of the street has been sold. It has been empty for years. (which)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. It’s a pity he doesn’t take the doctor’s advice. (wish)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Part 3 : A friend of yours has written to you, asking for some advice. He wants to visit
your country for three weeks this summer and would like to know which places to visit,
where to stay, what sights to see, and what clothes to bring. Write to him, giving as many
suggestions as you can and mentioning any national customs that may seem strange to
him. (about 200 words)
ĐÁP ÁN
I. VOCABULARY: (30 points)
Part 1: (10 points)
|
Q# |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
6 |
7 |
8 |
9 |
10 |
|
Key |
D |
D |
A |
C |
B |
B |
B |
D |
B |
A |
Part 2: (10 points)
- education 2. backgrounds 3. suburban 4. poverty
- entertainment 6. activities 7. fewer 8. Commercials
- favourite 10. violent
Part 3: (10 points)
|
Q# |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
6 |
7 |
8 |
9 |
10 |
|
Key |
F |
D |
G |
J |
I |
B |
A |
C |
E |
H |
II. GRAMMAR: (20 points)
Part 1: (10 points)
1) am writing 2) booked 3) received 4) was promised 5) am not
6) made 7) sleep 8) asked 9) were 10) had
Part 2: (10 points)
1) of 2) to 3) on 4) in – to 5) about – on – to 6) at 7) in
III. READING: (25 points)
Part 1: (10 points)
1. one 2. by 3. of 4. like 5. saying 6. no 7. found 8. about 9. who 10. never
Part 2 (5 points)
1) The process of making something dirty is pollution.
2) A word or phrase with the same meaning as the air, water and land we live is environment.
3) The air surrounding the earth is called atmosphere.
4) Resources could be best replaced wealth, goods or products people can use
5) A difficulty which needs attention and thought is problem.
Part 3: (10 points) 2 points for each correct answer
- A. 2. C. 3. B. 4. C. 5. A.
IV. WRITING: (25 marks)
Part 1: (10 points)
1. The lions are fed at 3 pm every day
2. If we had had a map, we wouldn’t have got lost
3. I would rather you delivered the sofa on Friday.
4. It was such a low bridge that the bus couldn’t go under it.
5. What a silly thing to say!
6. There isn’t any tea left.
7. I haven’t seen him since I was a student.
8. Susan was so excited that she couldn’t sleep.
9. Robert has been out of job/ jobless/ unemployed for two years.
10. She will not complete the work unless she is paid extra/ if she is not paid extra.
Part 2: (5 points)
1. All the students love the principal because of his kindness.
2. I’m sorry for having forgotten the tickets.
3. If I hadn’t seen it with my own eyes, I wouldn’t have believed it.
4. The house at the end of the street which has been empty for years has been sold.
5. I wish he took the doctor’s advice.
Part 3: (10 points)
Đề thi hsg tiếng Anh 9 có đáp án – Đề số 2
I. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY: (40 points)
Part 1: Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D (15 points)
1. Tam ………………go fishing with his brother when he was young.
A. used to
B. is used to
C. has used to
D. was used to
2. I don’t know what to do this evening. What about . ……………. to the movies?
A. go
B. to go
C. going
D. goes
3. I don’t like doing the . ……………. , especially cleaning the windows.
A. homework
B. housework
C. job
D. occupation.
4. My favorite . ……………. is Literature.
A. play
B. game
C. subject
D. activity
5. My mother is very . ……………. at cooking.
A. well
B. good
C. popular
D. famous
6. She. ……………. a letter when the telephone rang.
A. writes
B. wrote
C. has written
D. was writing
7. He has just got an interesting . ……………. in a textile company.
A. work
B. job
C. occupation
D. employment
8. William suggested . ……………. at home for a change.
A. staying
B. to stay
C. stay
D. stayed
9. The . ……………. of waste paper can save a great amount of wood pulp.
A. recycle
B. recyclable
C. recyclement
D. recycling
10. Mrs Nga forgot to . ……………. the faucet when she left for work.
A. turn off
B. turn on
C. turn up
D. turn down
11. This book is different ………………… the one I had.
A. with
B. to
C. from
D. at
12. What will happen if the pollution ………………….. on.
A. puts
B. goes
C, keeps
D. takes
13. I’m afraid this article is …………………… date.
A. over
B. pass
C. behind
D. out of
14. I had to get up early, ……………….. I would miss the train.
A. otherwise
B. if not
C. but
D. so that
15. Most young people want to …………………….. more about environmental problems.
A. look up
B. find out
C. deal with
D. make out
Part 2: Fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the words in parentheses. (10 points)
The holiday of a lifetime
If you want a truly (1) ………………………… holiday , book with us now! We (MEMORY) can offer you a (2) …………………… service that no other company can. (person)
Our expert staff will provide you with useful (3) ………………….. about all (inform) of the (4) ………………………….. buildings and areas that you can visit. On some (history) excursions, for a small (5) ………………………………………….change, we can even provide (add) you with your own individual guide. A trip with us will give you an insight into the (6) ……………………………………………………….. of the region. We try to make sure (cultural) that nothing is (7) …………………………………………………… in order to make your trip a (miss) (8) …………………………. one that you will talk about for ages. We have (marvel) something to offer both those (9) …………………………………………….. for a peaceful time (look) taking it easy, and more (10) ……………………………………….. people looking for the (energy) adventure of a lifetime.
Part 3: Complete the gaps in the newspaper article below with a suitable form of the verb in brackets. Choose from the following active or passive forms: present simple, present continuous, past simple, present perfect, past perfect and modals. (15 points)
VOLUNTEERING
Two and a half years ago, Anita Kapur (0) left (leave) university with high hopes and a degree in the History of Art. She then (1) ……………………… (spend) the next two years applying in vain for jobs. ‘I soon (2) …………………………………….. (realise) that I (3) ……………………… (study) something more practical, like computing or accountancy,’ admits Anita. ‘I (4) ……………………………. (have) no work experience, and there (5) ……………………………………. (always be) a lot of competition for jobs in the art world.’ Last summer, Anita (6) ……………………… (see) an advertisement for volunteers to help organise an arts festival in her home town. She (7) …………….. (apply) and (8)……………. (accept). Since then, Anita (9) …………………… (find) a job as an administrator in a London gallery. ‘I definitely (10) ……………………………………. (not get) this job, if I (11) ………………………………….. (not gain) such useful experience doing the voluntary job at the arts festival,’ she says. Anita’s experience is far from unique, but it is not only job-seekers who (12) ……………………. (benefit) from volunteering. If businesses (13) ………………… (see) to be doing something for the community, it (14) ………………………. (enhance) their public image. For this reason, more and more companies nowadays (15) ……………… (encourage) their employees to volunteer, either partly or wholly in the company’s time.
II. READING: (35 points)
Part 1: Look at the text in each question. What does it say? Choose the correct explanation – A, B or C (10 points)
Còn tiếp …
Đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 9 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án – Đề số 3
I. LISTENING COMPREHENSION (20 points)
Listen to the conversation between Ken, a student in Britain, and a travel agent, then circle the best answers:
1. How many prices does the travel agent give Ken ?
a. Two b. Three c. Four
2. How much does the cheapest flight cost ?
a. £ 560 b. £ 506 c. £ 516
3. How much does the most expensive flight cost?
a. £ 860 b. £ 806 c. £ 816
4. Which one is Ken interested in?
a. the cheapest one b. the most expensive one
5. Which days of the week does it go?
a. Tuesday, Wednesday and Saturday.
b. Monday, Tuesday and Saturday.
c. Tuesday, Thursday and Saturday.
6. How many hours does it take?
a. twenty – two b. twenty – one c. thirty – two
7. How long does it stop over for?
a. Fourteen hours b. Four hours c. Forty hours
8. How much deposit will Ken have to pay?
a. £ 50 b. £ 15 c. £ 60
9. When will he have to pay the full price?
a. Six weeks before he travels
b. Six days before he travels.
c. Six hours before he travels.
10. Ken books the flight ……..
a. before he leaves the travel agency.
b. some days later.
c. two weeks later.
II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: (30 points)
A. Multiple Choice: (10 points)
Circle the letter next to the word or phrase which best completes each sentence:
1. They named their daughter ……………….. their favourite movie star.
a. of b. for c. after d. on
2. I won’t speak to her …………………… she apologizes.
a. in case b. in spite of c.so that d. unless
3. My mother used to …………………… research in this library when she was a student.
a. make b. do c. doing d. making
4. Let’s go to the beach this weekend, …………………………………….?
a. shall we b. do we c. don’ t we d. let we
5. The historical places in my city are open and free ……….. everyone on special holidays.
a. for b. to c. with d. from
6. I don’t mind ………………….. home but I ‘ d rather ………………………. a taxi.
a. to walk / to get b. walking / getting
c. walking / get d. walk / getting
7. There are………………………………………… young people who care about hip hop.
a. more and more b. less and less c. many and many d. most and most
8. The parting meeting was really moving and wonderful. I wish you……………………………………..
a. to come b. had come c. would have come d. came
9. I don’t usually like staying at hotels but last summer we spent a few days at ………………very nice
hotel by …………….. sea.
a. a / – b. a / the c. the / a d. – / the
10. I can ‘ t find the tickets. I seem ……………. them.
a. to have lost b. to lose c. losing d. to lost
11. Take your coat with you ……………… it gets cold later.
a. if b. as long as c. when d. in case
12. John wasn ‘ t at work yesterday. He ……………………
a. must have been ill. b. must be ill.
c. must have ill . d. must to be ill.
13. My father has gone away. He’ ll be back ………. a week.
a. for b. at c. until d. in
14. The math problem was…………difficult for him………….work out.
a. so / to b. too / that c. so / that d. too / to
15. ………………….. don ‘ t visit this part of the town.
a. Most tourists b. Most of tourists c. The most tourists d. Many tourist
16. What she said…………… me………………. unhappy.
a. made / to feel b. made / feel c. made / felt d. to make / feeling
17. I haven ‘ t seen her for ……………….. that I have forgotten what she looks like.
a. so long time b. a so long time
c. a such long time d. such a long time
18. He is the most humorous man ………….. I have ever met.
a. who b. whose c. that d. which
19. Do you know all the guests …………………… to the party ?
a. inviting b. invited c. who invited d. were invited
20. How beautiful she is ! She is wearing a ……………………………………. .
a. silk pretty purple dress. b. dress silk pretty purple.
c. purple pretty silk dress. d. pretty purple silk dress.
B. Complete the following sentences with the appropriate forms of the words in parentheses. (10 points)
1. The ……………….. you write, the …………… your mark will be. (CAREFUL / BAD)
2. It’s …………. to drink the water because it hasn’t been …………….. yet. (POSSIBLE / PURE)
3. The trip was …………………… …………………. ( EXTREME / ENJOY )
4. I believe in ……………… diseases because …………….. is always better than cure. (PREVENT)
5. The coal industry was …………………………… private but was ………………….. in the 1940s. (ORIGIN / NATION)
Còn tiếp …
Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh 9 có đáp án – Đề số 4
I. LISTENING: ( 20 points)
Part 1: Listen to the interview with Saul Robbins about his daily life and choose the correct answer. You will hear the recording three times. (6 points)
1. Saul lives in ………………
A. Paris B. London C. New York
2. He is a …………….
A. director B. reporter C. producer
3. He works for …………….
A. a newspaper B. a radio station C. a TV station
4. He goes to work at ……………… in the afternoon.
A. two B. four C. five
5. When he gets up he ………………. first.
A. brushes his teeth B. has a shower C. gets dressed
6. He has ……………… for breakfast.
A. some toast B. some ice-cream C. a cup of coffee
7. He goes to work ………………
A. on foot B. by car C. by train
8. He finishes work at ……………. in the morning.
A. two B. four C. five
9. After work he goes for a ……………… with his friends.
A. walk B. drink C. meal
10. He …………….. travels to other countries.
A. sometimes B. usually C. never
11. He …………….his job.
A. likes B. doesn’t like C. hates
12 In his free time, he plays ……………….
A. tennis B. football C. badminton
Part 2:. Listen and write down the times in words. You will hear the recording three times. (9 points)
1………………………………………… 6. ………………………………………………….
2. ………………………………………. 7. ………………………………………………….
3 ……………………………………….. 8. …………………………………………………..
4………………………………………… 9. …………………………………………………..
5…………………………………………
Part 3: Listen to the interview and answer the questions. You will hear the recording three times. (5 points)
1. Where did Julia go for her holiday? ………………………………………………………………
2. How did she go there? ……………………………………………………………………..
3. How long did the journey take? ……………………………………………………………………
4. Where did she stay? …………………………………………………………………….
5. What things did she do? …………………………………………………………………….
II.VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR: (33 points)
Part 1: Choose the correct answer among A, B, C or D. (10 points)
1. When the party was _____ we helped them clear up the house.
A. up B. off C. out D. over
2 Jack can’t remember _____ the telephone number down.
A. write B to write C. writing D. written
3. Has Sue finished _____ yet?
A. washing up B. to wash up C. wash up D. wash upping
4. Jane stopped the car _____ a newspaper.
A. buying B. to buy C. buy D. bought
5. I _____ your name. Could you tell me again?
A. am forgetting B. ’ve been forgettingC. ’ve forgotten D. was forgetting
6. There you are! I _____ for two hours. Where’ve you been?
A. am waiting B. wait C. waited D. have been waiting
7. This job ______ working very long hours.
A. involves B. consists C. includes D. contains
8. “Have they arrested the thieves yet?” “It’s only a _______ of time.”
A. period B. matter C. length D. waste
9. Just think, ______ two years’ time, we’ll be 18!
A. under B. over C. after D. in
10. I’ll give you ten minutes to come ______ with a better idea.
A. out B. in C. through D. up
Part 2: Complete the interview using the past simple, present perfect simple, or present perfect continuous. More than one tense may be possible (15 points)
James: Dave, I haven’t seen (see) you for a long time.
Dave: No well, I _____________ (1 live) in West London for the last few
years.
James: Right! So what _____________ you _____________ (2 do)?
Dave: Well, I _______________ (3 work) for a film company for the last two years.
James: Wow! A film company. That’s glamorous!
Dave: No, not really. It’s hard work. I’m an assistant director.
James: _______________ you ___________ (4 meet) anyone famous?
Dave: Well, yes! I _____________ (5 work) with some famous people in the time I’ve been there. Last year we __________ (6 make) a film with Jack Anderson.
James: Wow! I _______ (7 see) him in a film last week. He’s really brilliant!
Dave: And I _________ (8 film) with Belinda Barker a couple of months ago.
James: You lucky thing!
Dave: Oh, yeah, and I __________ also_________ (9 become) friends with Matt
Harper. We __________________ (10 meet) on the last film I worked on.
James: What ___________ you ____________ (11 do) this year?
Dave: Well, I _________________ (12 finish) work on a comedy, and for the past
couple of weeks I _________________ (13 help) the director to cast a new
romantic comedy.
James: What ____________ you _______________ (14 work) on today?
Dave: I’m afraid I can’t tell you. It’s a secret! Anyway, enough about me! What
__________ you _____________ (15 do) lately?
Part 3: Use the words in capital to form a word that fits in the spaces 1–8 in the text. (8 points)
(0) Original Olympic Games began in Ancient Greece in ORIGIN
BC 776 in Olympia. The Games were very popular and were held
(1) …………………………… every four years until AD 393 when they were REGULAR
stopped by the Roman Emperor. The modern games were started
again in Athens in 1896.
The Games have become the World’s most important international
athletics (2) …………………. , in which the best athletes spend years training COMPETE
in (3) ………………………………. for this great event. Sports range from PREPARE
basketball to horse riding. Perhaps the most (4) ………………….. track and CHALLENGE
field event is the decathlon. Athletes take part in ten different running,
jumping and throwing events.
Almost every nation sends a team to the Olympic Games and
one of the ideas is that the Games encourage (5) …………………………. FRIEND
between countries. (6) ……………………….. sports lovers travel thousands of DEDICATE
miles to watch the Games and most (7) ……………………… athletes want the AMBITION
chance of winning an Olympic medal. Such an (8) ………………………… can ACHIEVE
make them known throughout the world.
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